cmonurz A conversation took place between two players, the contents of which no-one else heard. Suarez has admitted to using the word 'negro', but says it was concilliatory.
Imho the burden of proof needs to be higher than an 'expert' deciding what Suarez meant when he used it.
As I've said, he shouldn't have used the word, and 'bringing the game into disrepute' would do here, imho. Has he been labelled a racist? When he returns to the team in Feb/Mar, and Liverpool play away from home, you tell me.
An expert didn't decide that. The test is an objective one rather than a subjective one, so that consideration didn't have a bearing on whether or not he was guilty of the charge made by the FA. Again, your understanding of the situation would likely benefit from actually reading the Reasons.
This is the rule that Suarez was charged as having broken:
"Rule E3, with the sub-heading "General Behaviour", provides as follows:
"(1) A Participant shall at all times act in the best interests of the game and shall not
act in any manner which is improper or brings the game into disrepute or use
any one, or a combination of, violent conduct, serious foul play, threatening,
abusive, indecent or insulting words or behaviour.
(2) In the event of any breach of Rule E3(1) including a reference to any one or
more of a person's ethnic origin, colour, race, nationality, faith, gender, sexual
orientation or disability (an "aggravating factor"), a Regulatory Commission
shall consider the imposition of an increased sanction..."
What objection do you have to the FA charging him under this Rule? Which Rule do you think they should have charged him under instead?
Neither the FA nor the panel have labelled him a racist. If other people do so, that's no more there fault than it is the court's fault that, for example, fans might shout "murderer" at Lee Hughes.