by Extended-Phenotype »
10 Dec 2013 15:01
Ok, so in summary:
To the question “why hasn’t Lampard been able to reproduce his club form on the international stage?” NFA argued that he has, citing a recent statistic as evidence which later turned out to be fabricated.
NFA also seemed to concede at one point, stating that the discrepancy in form was true of other England players but this didn’t really answer the question specifically in regard to Lampard.
I’m just genuinely curious what reasoning a Chelsea and Lampard fan has for the unarguable difference in performance in one shirt over the other. Not as a criticism, not as a joke and not as a trick question.
I’m genuinely interested in the viewpoint of somebody who has followed his career, has good knowledge of his game and how he plays week in, week out. The magnitude of the difference is obviously debatable, perhaps the neutral or the critic may state the disparity is far greater than his fans would. But at the end of the day, all parties would agree a disparity does exist. As a neutral, I have my own reasoning – I’m just curious what NFA, as a fan, yours might be?
It’s a reasonable and rational question, the evasion of which makes me all the more curious – perhaps by answering you would be forced to be reasonable and rational also, and this is something you are uncomfortable with (not too far-fetched considering your post history!). However, surely even you must see that you are losing far more dignity with your current tack (irrelevantly posting “link?”, inventing stats, peppering content with unnecessary smilies as if this conveys composure or worse, completely ignoring such gentle and innocent questions) than by actually offering an insight as to why Lampard in particular has not been able to produce the kind of football we witness every week in the Premier League, in an England shirt.
It’s just a question on a football forum from one football fan to another, I have no idea why you would handle it with such obvious agitation.